Not to mention, the Constitution (via the 4th Amendment) already tells the states, the counties, the world, and the universe itself that the American People have “the right to be secure in their homes”.
Now, how in the hell are people supposed to be secure in their homes, if the county government waves a magic wand every year, declares that you own them money, and if you dont/wont pay up, they will violate said security and take your home. When the county government violates the Constitution by even “threatening” to take your home, then anything the county gov does after that fact (like try to collect a debt by seizing your home) is not even in the scope of the initial constitutional violation – it is not even justifiable that they can violate your security in your home yearly because they want some money. Period. You cant say…I am going to violate the constitution by threatening you, and that is ok because I didnt yet steal your home from you because you owed a debt. The violation is in the “INITIAL THREAT” of home seizure.
It shouldn’t even get to the point of a home seizure – the law was broken THEN, and the county govt should be pushed back on THEN – right at the moment they broke constitutional law by depriving you the right to be "secure "in your home. Forget the seizure of the home for a moment. Focus on the Constitutional violation that comes into play the moment the county levies a tax against your home (which you possibly cannot afford). THAT is when the security was threatened – and every year thereafter. It is repeat violation.
A lot of people use the arguement that homes can be seized because a debt was not paid…what the hell does that have to do with the violation of the law BEFORE any of that happened? The violation of the fourth amendment happens EXACTLY at the same time the county government sends you a tax form stating that you owe them money on that home. The second it happens – your home became at risk until you pay that extortion money. How is this confusing? Why is the county government allowed to do it? Forget what they do with the money. Concentrate on the Fourth Amendment only and the violation of it. How can it be argued that this is NOT a violation of said amendment? I would love to hear a fresh take on it instead of some over-hyped monotonous nonsense that many simply spit out from memory, about why the money is needed, or what can be seized for non-payment of debt. Seems like many people dont have the ability to put blinders on and focus at only a crucial part of a picture at a given time and not stray outside of a fixed focal point - which is probably why we cant get any traction on the Fourth Amendment violation (regardless of anything else).
Thought Experiment: Imagine a red light connected to the fourth amendment…stare at the words, understand their meaning completely…and describe when the red warning light first goes off. That flashing red light represents a violation. When does the light go off and the 4A violation occur? It occurs the moment the house is no longer “secure to the homeowner”? When does that insecurity first occur? It occurs when the homeowner opens the mailbox and sees the county govt letter demanding either a payment, or the person’s home turned over for resale. This aint rocket science.
4TH: “The right of a person to be secure in his home shall not be violated”
Question: Did the County Government violate the 4TH Amendment by threatening the security of homeowner’s home? Since precident has already been set 1000s of times before, when payments were not made, and other homes were seized, it is a definite threat made by past precident, which causes the homeowner to NOT be secure in his/her home – which then triggers the Constitutional violation.
I rest my case.
Now moving on to correcting the Constitutional issue with property taxes. Many of the same people who argue for property taxes and claim that it is not a violation of the fourth amendment also follow up with this statement: “But it is an issue at the state level, so there is nothing that can be done here.” This is also incorrect. Below is the solution to most all state-level and county-level constitutional violations – including and especially county-level threats to a person’s right to be secure in their homes…
So, in summary, this post shows the violation and shows the solution to the violation. The rest is left to us, the American People. Thanks.
Final Thought: For those who still want to argue that property taxes are OK because the money is used to fund schools and roads, I will offer support to your argument in this way: "I completely agree with you that schools and roads need funding; however, it should be done without raising concerns within the mind of the homeowner that the security of their home is under threat. If the county government, can extract that wealth from the homeowner, and the homeowner never once worries about loosing his home in the process of that extraction, then there is no violation. Since the violation is triggered and exists INSIDE THE MIND of the homeowner, and this is protected, the county govt needs to operate while taking into account the right of the homeowner to be left peacably be, regarding the security of his home. It is on the county govt to figure that out – not the homeowner or the neighbor, or an unrelated avid apologist.
Read it again: “The right of a person to be SECURE in his home shall not be violated ”
